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Useful Microsoft MCSM 070-410 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory.
What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains multiple subnets.
On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses.
What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated.
The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup.
You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone.
You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that has the DNS Server server role installed. Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com.
The domain contains a member server named Server2 that is configured to use Server1 as its primary DNS server.
From Server2, you run nslookup.exe as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
070-410 dumps
You need to ensure that when you run Nslookup, the correct name of the default server is displayed.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, create a reverse lookup zone.
B. On Server1, modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server1, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list.
D. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server2, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Make sure that a reverse lookup zone that is authoritative for the PTR resource record exists. PTR records contain the information that is required for the server to perform reverse name lookups.

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 070-410 dumps
You create a DHCP scope named Scope1. The scope has a start address of 192.168.1.10, an end address of 192.168.1.50, and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.
You need to ensure that Scope1 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.
What should you do first?
A. From the DHCP console, reconcile Scope1.
B. From the DHCP console, delete Scope1.
C. From the DHCP console, modify the Scope Options of Scope1.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DhcpServerv4Scope cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The only way to change the subnet mask of a scope is to delete and recreate the scope. Set-DhcpServerv4Scope does not include a parameter for the subnet mask.

QUESTION 6
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only.
You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable.
Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?
A. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3rff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4
D. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Unique local addresses
Unique local addresses are IPv6 addresses that are private to an organization in the same way that private addresses–such as 10.x.x.x, 192.168.x.x, or 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255–can be used on an IPv4 network.
Unique local addresses, therefore, are not routable on the IPv6 Internet in the same way that an address like 10.20.100.55 is not routable on the IPv4 Internet.
A unique local address is always structured as follows:
The first 8 bits are always 11111101 in binary format. This means that a unique local address always begins with FD and has a prefix identifier of FD00::/8.

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter.
B. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter.
C. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastLogon property.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1 and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as shown in following table.
070-410 dumps
When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the global catalog server
B. The placement of the infrastructure master
C. The placement of the domain naming master
D. The placement of the PDC emulator
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The exhibit shows that Site2 does not have a PDC emulator. This is important because of the close interaction between the RID operations master role and the PDC emulator role
The PDC emulator processes password changes from earlier-version clients and other domain controllers on a best-effort basis; handles password authentication requests involving passwords that have recently changed and not yet been replicated throughout the domain; and, by default, synchronizes time. If this domain controller cannot connect to the PDC emulator, this domain controller cannot process authentication requests, it may not be able to synchronize time, and password updates cannot be replicated to it.

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to use Windows PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) to confirm that the Application Identity service is running on all file servers.
You define the following configuration in the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE):
070-410 dumps
You need to use DSC to configure Server1 as defined in the configuration.
What should you run first?
A. Service1
B. Configuration1
C. Start DscConfiguration
D. Test-DscConfigu ration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
070-410 dumps
You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Delete partition E.
C. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
D. Take Disk 1 offline.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1.Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Share and Storage Management
B. New-StoragePool
C. New-VirtualDisk
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server 1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.
070-410 dumps
The DHCP clients in Subnet1 can connect to the client computers in Subnet2 by using an IP address or a FQDN.
You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet2 can connect to client computers in Subnet1 by using an IP address only.
You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet1
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet2
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet2
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You have a server named dc2.contoso.com that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
You open DNS Manager as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
070-410 dumps
You need to view the DNS server cache from DNS Manager.
What should you do first?
A. From the View menu, click Filter…
B. From the Action menu, click Configure a DNS Server…
C. From the Action menu, click Properties.
D. From the View menu, click Advanced.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Navigating the DNS Manager console you should go to the View menu and click the Advanced tab. That will yield the DNS server cache.

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1.Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 070-410 dumps
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -StartupType parameter.
C. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
D. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the privs parameter.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Executing the ss.exe command with the config parameter will modify service configuration.

QUESTION 15
You plan to deploy a file server to a temporary location.
The temporary location experiences intermittent power failures. The file server will contain a dedicated volume for shared folders.
You need to create a volume for the shared folders. The solution must minimize the likelihood of file corruption if a power failure occurs.
Which file system should you use?
A. NFS
B. FAT32
C. ReFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The ReFS file system allows for resiliency against corruptions with the option to salvage amongst many other key features like Metadata integrity with checksums, Integrity streams with optional user data integrity, and shared storage pools across machines for additional failure tolerance and load balancing, etc.

QUESTION 16
Your network contains a Windows Server 2012 R2 image named Server12.wim.Server12.wim contains the images shown in the following table.
070-410 dumps
You need to enable the Windows Server Migration Tools feature in the Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter image.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
Which command should you run first?
A. dism.exe /image:c:\Server12.wim /enable-feature /featurename:servermigration
B. dism.exe /mount-wim /wimfile:c:\Server12.wim /index:4 /mountdir:c:\mount
C. imagex.exe /capture c: c:\Server12.wim “windows server 2012 r2 datacenter”
D. imagex.exe /apply c:\Server12.wim 4 c:\
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
This command will mount the image before making any changes.

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a security template named Template1 by using the Security Templates snap-in.
You need to apply Template1 to Server2.
Which tool should you use?
A. System Configuration
B. Local Security Policy
C. Certificate Templates
D. computer Management
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
A security policy is a combination of security settings that affect the security on a computer. You can use your local security policy to edit account policies and local policies on your local computer.

QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Print and Document Services server role installed.
Server1 is connected to two identical print devices.
The solution must ensure that if one print device fails, the print jobs will print automatically on the other print device.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Add two printers and configure the priority of each printer.
B. Install the Failover Clustering feature, and then add one printer.
C. Install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature, and then add one printer.
D. Add one printer and configure printer pooling.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
By adding one printer as the default printer you ensure that only that printer is used at a time, and creating a printing pool to automatically distribute print jobs to the next available printer will cover all the requirements stated in the question. A printing pool is one logical printer connected to multiple printers through multiple ports of the print server. The printer that is idle receives the next document sent to the logical printer.
A printing pool is one logical printer connected to multiple printers through multiple ports of the print server. The printer that is idle receives the next document sent to the logical printer. This is useful in a network with a high volume of printing because it decreases the time users wait for their documents. A printing pool also simplifies administration because multiple printers can be managed from the same logical printer on a server.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains hundreds of groups, many of which are nested in other groups.
The domain contains a user account named user1.User1 is a direct member of 15 groups.
You need to identify of which Active Directory groups User1 is a member, including the nested groups. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. ADSI Edit
C. Get-ADUser
D. Dsget
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has two dual-core processors and 32 GB of RAM.
You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1.
You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory.
You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.
What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Memory weight
C. Dynamic Memory
D. NUMA topology
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Dynamic Memory is a new Hyper-V feature that helps you use physical memory more efficiently.
With Dynamic Memory, Hyper-V treats memory as a shared resource that can be reallocated automatically among running virtual machines. Dynamic Memory adjusts the amount of memory available to a virtual machine, based on changes in memory demand and values that you specify. Dynamic Memory is available for Hyper-V in Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
* Dynamic Memory helps you use memory resources more efficiently. Before this feature was introduced, changing the amount of memory available to a virtual machine could be done only when the virtual machine was turned off. With Dynamic Memory, Hyper-V can provide a virtual machine with more or less memory dynamically in response to changes in the amount ofmemory required by the workloads or Applications running in the virtual machine. As a result, Hyper-V can distribute memory more efficiently among the running virtual machines configured with Dynamic Memory. Depending on factors such as workload, this efficiency can make it possible to run more virtual machines at the same time on one physical computer.

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Dumps Exam Practice Files Update Youtube Shared (Q1-Q20)

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New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the output.
feature otv
otv site-vlan 2
otv site-identifier 256
!
interface ethernet 2/0
ip address 192.0.2.1/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface ethernet 2/1
ip address 192.0.2.2/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface Overlay1
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/0
otv extend-vlan 3-100
!
interface Overlay2
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/1
otv extend-vlan 101-115
Which command best represents where the control plane configurations are applied?
A. switch(config-if-overlay)# otv isis hello-interval 30
B. switch(config-if)# otv isis hello-interval 30
C. switch(config-vlan)# otv isis hello-interval 30
D. switch(config)# otv isis hello-interval 30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
Which statement is true regarding the port channel 100 and 101 configurations between the Nexus 7010 switches?
A. The vPC assignments on N7010-C2 are incorrectly swapped
B. N7010-C1 is not allowing any active VLAN traffic to pass on Po100 and Po101.
C. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
D. The vPC peer-keepalive is down between the two Nexus 7000 switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
OTV is configured ?test pings confirm that it is working but other tests do not seem to perform well. 300-180 dumps What is the problem?
A. VLANs are not properly extended.
B. The multicast groups are not defined properly.
C. The transport network is not configured to process the overhead that is introduced by OTV.
D. The overlay may not be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are attempting to configure boot from SAN on your server that is attached to a Cisco MDS 9148 Fibre Channel switch. What is a possible issue that may occur?
A. Check the status of the licenses on the Fibre Channel switch.
B. NPV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
C. NPIV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
D. Boot from SAN is not supported via the Fibre Channel protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When you ping your new Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch, you see this output:
!!…!!…!!…!!…!!…
What could be the problem?
A. Traffic may be taking a bad route through the network.
B. HSRP is flapping.
C. CoPP is rate-limiting the pings.
D. The switch has high CPU utilization.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why do the lists not contain the same switches, after you issue the commands show cfs peers name and show cfs merge status?
A. The merge cannot occur until the VSAN IDs are synched.
B. The Cisco Fabric Services fabric has a physical port fault that should be investigated.
C. The fabric is partitioned into multiple Cisco Fabric Services fabrics.
D. Cisco Fabric Services need to be restarted to see the new switches.
E. A Cisco Fabric Services database lock has prevented the merge.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command would you use to find the AED of an extended VLAN in a dual-homed site of an OTV network?
A. show otv aed on the AED
B. show otv site on any edge devices in the site
C. show otv vlan on the AED
D. show otv aed on any edge devices in the site
E. show otv vlan on any edge devices in the site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
An administrator sets up a FabricPath network. The administrator tries to ping between two SVI interfaces on the leaf switches 10 and 20, but it fails. What caused the pings to fail?
A. Switches S10 and S20 do not have F2 modules.
B. The vPC peer gateway must be enabled on switches S10 and S20.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 should be interconnected directly.
D. VLAN 10 is not enabled on the spine switches (S1, S2, and S3).
E. Layer 3 over a vPC+ peer link is not supported.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in the local site? (Choose two.)
A. show otv overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch will show the interface information for port 10 on the connected FEX 100?
A. show interface Ethernet 100/10
B. show fex 100 interface Ethernet 1/10
C. show interface Ethernet 100/1/10
D. show interface Ethernet 1/100/10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What are three situations that may cause an ISSU failure? (Choose three.)
A. A module is removed while the upgrade is in progress.
B. A proper ISSU license is not in place.
C. The device has a power disruption while the upgrade is in progress.
D. A line card is in a failure state.
E. The specified system and kickstart images are not compatible.
F. The management interface is not in the correct VRF.
G. The secondary supervisor is not installed.
H. The redundancy force-switchover command was used during the ISSU.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 16
Which command helps to determine if there are any conflicts in the network with respect to a FabricPath configuration?
A. show licenses
B. show fabricpath conflict
C. show fabricpath conflict all
D. switchport mode fabricpath
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer’s representatives want to know how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command is useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issu test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding trunking on an ISL between two switches in order for the VSAN to be trunked? 300-180 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The VSAN must be defined on both switches.
B. The VSAN must be on the VSAN allowed list.
C. All VSANs that are being trunked must be using either enhanced or non-enhanced mode zoning, but not both.
D. IVR must be configured for Cisco Fabric Services.
E. The device alias database must successfully merge.
F. There cannot be any duplicate domain IDs within an individual VSAN.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
An administrator is deploying FCoE; however, a VFC interface will not come up. The administrator executes the commandshow platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc and displays the output.
What is the problem?
A. An incorrect VSAN number is being used.
B. The connected host does not support FIP.
C. FCoE is not enabled.
D. Priority flow control is not being negotiated with the converged network adapter.
Correct Answer: B

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update Free Shared

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300-206 dumps

Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
What is the primary purpose of stateful pattern recognition in Cisco IPS networks?
A. mitigating man-in-the-middle attacks
B. using multipacket inspection across all protocols to identify vulnerability-based attacks and to thwart attacksthat hide within a data stream
C. detecting and preventing MAC address spoofing in switched environments
D. identifying Layer 2 ARP attacks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In which two modes is zone-based firewall high availability available? (Choose two.)
A. IPv4 only
B. IPv6 only
C. IPv4 and IPv6
D. routed mode only
E. transparent mode only
F. both transparent and routed modes
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from gaining network topology information from CDP via a man-in-the-middle attack?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? 300-206 dumps (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 6
A network printer has a DHCP server service that cannot be disabled. How can a layer 2 switch be configured to prevent the printer from causing network issues?
A. Remove the ip helper-address
B. Configure a Port-ACL to block outbound TCP port 68
C. Configure DHCP snooping
D. Configure port-security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?
A. ip source flow-export
B. ip source netflow-export
C. ip flow-export source
D. ip netflow-export source
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
At which layer does MACsecprovide encryption?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Where on a firewall does an administrator assign interfaces to contexts?
A. in the system execution space
B. in the admin context
C. in a user-defined context
D. in the console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two TCP ports must be open on the Cisco Security Manager server to allow the server to communicate with the Cisco Security Manager client? (Choose two.)
A. 1741
B. 443
C. 80
D. 1740
E. 8080
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which Layer 2 security feature prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast,multicat, or unicast storm on one physical interface?
A. Bridge protocol Data Unit Guard
B. Storm Control
C. Embedded event monitoring
D. Access control lists
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which function does DNSSEC provide in a DNS infrastructure?
A. It authenticates stored information.
B. It authorizes stored information.
C. It encrypts stored information.
D. It logs stored security information.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
By default, not all services in the default inspection class are inspected. 300-206 dumps Which Cisco ASA CLI command do you use to determine which inspect actions are applied to the default inspection class?
A. show policy-map global_policy
B. show policy-map inspection_default
C. show class-map inspection_default
D. show class-map default-inspection-traffic
E. show service-policy global
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which statement describes the correct steps to enable Botnet Traffic Filtering on a Cisco ASA version 9.0 transparentmode firewall with an active Botnet Traffic Filtering license?
A. Enable DNS snooping, traffic classification, and actions.
B. Botnet Traffic Filtering is not supported in transparent mode.
C. Enable the use of the dynamic database, enable DNS snooping, traffic classification, and actions.
D. Enable the use of dynamic database, enable traffic classification and actions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this firewall output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The output is from a packet tracer debug.
B. All packets are allowed to 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0.
C. All packets are allowed to 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0.
D. All packets are denied.
E. The output is from a debug all command.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which option is the default logging buffer size In memory of the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance?
A. 8KB
B. 32KB
C. 2KB
D. 16KB
E. 4KB
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters: -The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices.
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What are three attributes that can be applied to a user account with RBAC? (Choose three.)
A. domain
B. password
C. ACE tag
D. user roles
E. VDC group tag
F. expiry date
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
Which two router commands enable NetFlow on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. ip flow ingress
B. ip flow egress
C. ip route-cache flow infer-fields
D. ip flow ingress infer-fields
E. ip flow-export version 9
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
At which firewall severity level will debugs appear on a Cisco ASA?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
What are two high-level task areas in a Cisco Prime Infrastructure life-cycle workflow? (Choose two.)
A. Design
B. Operate
C. Maintain
D. Log
E. Evaluate
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the expected result of the capture ACL?
A. The capture is applied, but we cannot see any packets in the capture
B. The capture does not get applied and we get an error about mixed policy.
C. The capture is applied and we can see the packets in the capture
D. The capture is not applied because we must have a host IP as the source
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
A network engineer is troubleshooting and configures the ASA logging level to debugging. The logging-buffer is dominated by %ASA-6-305009 log messages. 300-206 dumps Which command suppresses those syslog messages while maintaining ability to troubleshoot?
A. no logging buffered 305009
B. message 305009 disable
C. no message 305009 logging
D. no logging message 305009
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
When it is configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the switchport port-security maximum command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 27
When a traffic storm threshold occurs on a port, into which state can traffic storm control put the port?
A. Disabled
B. Err-disabled
C. Disconnected
D. Blocked
E. Connected
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
How many interfaces can a Cisco ASA bridge group support and how many bridge groups can a Cisco ASA appliance support?
A. up to 2 interfaces per bridge group and up to 4 bridge groups per Cisco ASA appliance
B. up to 2 interfaces per bridge group and up to 8 bridge groups per Cisco ASA appliance
C. up to 4 interfaces per bridge group and up to 4 bridge groups per Cisco ASA appliance
D. up to 4 interfaces per bridge group and up to 8 bridge groups per Cisco ASA appliance
E. up to 8 interfaces per bridge group and up to 4 bridge groups per Cisco ASA appliance
F. up to 8 interfaces per bridge group and up to 8 bridge groups per Cisco ASA appliance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

To protect Host A and Host B from communicating with each other, which type of PVLAN port should be used for each host?
A. Host A on a promiscuous port and Host B on a community port
B. Host A on a community port and Host B on a promiscuous port
C. Host A on an isolated port and Host B on a promiscuous port
D. Host A on a promiscuous port and Host B on a promiscuous port
E. Host A on an isolated port and host B on an isolated port
F. Host A on a community port and Host B on a community port
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management plane hardening?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Best Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo (Q11-Q30)

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100-105 dumps

Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (11-30)

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.
100-105 dumps
Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96? 100-105 dumps
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers. In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands.

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2

QUESTION 21
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
100-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The IP address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0 specifies that the address is part of the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet 24 mask bits = 255.255.255.0 28 mask bits = 255.255.255.240 192.168.1.0/24 subnet has.

QUESTION 23
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

QUESTION 24
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.
Syntax Description

QUESTION 25
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path.

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. 100-105 dumps What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.

QUESTION 27
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle:
Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network security plan i.

QUESTION 29
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr.

QUESTION 30
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which RADIUS attribute can be used to dynamically assign the Inactivity active timer for MAB users from the Cisco ISE node?
A. radius-server timeout
B. idle-timeout attribute
C. session-timeout attribute
D. termination-action attribute
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web authentication portal? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which command defines administrator CLI access in ACS5.x?
A. Application reset-passwd acs username
B. username username password password role admin
C. username username password plain password role admin
D. password-policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two possible reasons why a scheduled nightly backup of ISE to a FTP repository would fail? (Choose two.)
A. ISE attempted to write the backup to an invalid path on the FTP server.
B. The ISE and FTP server clocks are out of sync.
C. The username and password for the FTP server are invalid.
D. The server key is invalid or misconfigured.
E. TCP port 69 is disabled on the FTP server.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which model does Cisco support in a RADIUS change of authorization implementation?
A. push
B. pull
C. policy
D. security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? 300-208 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user is on a wired connection and the posture status is noncompliant. Which state will their EPS session be placed in?
A. disconnected
B. limited
C. no access
D. quarantined
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What are the initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?
A. 1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Administration andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B. 1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security andgt; Administration andgt; New.
3. Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C. 1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D. 1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which remediation type ensures that Automatic Updates configuration is turned on Windows clients per security policy to remediate Windows clients for posture compliance?
A. AS Remediation
B. File Remediation
C. Launch Program Remediation
D. Windows Update Remediation
E. Windows Server Update Services Remediation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have configured a Cisco ISE 1.2 deployment for self-registration of guest users.
What two options can you select from to determine when the account duration timer begins? (Choose two.)
A. CreateTime
B. FirstLogin
C. BeginLogin
D. StartTime
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which type of access list is the most scalable that Cisco ISE can use to implement network authorization enforcement for a large number of users?
A. downloadable access lists
B. named access lists
C. VLAN access lists
D. MAC address access lists
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An organization has recently deployed ISE with Trustsec capable Cisco switches and would like to allow differentiated network access based on user groups. 300-208 dumps Which solution is most suitable for achieving these goals?
A. Cyber Threat Defense for user group control by leveraging Netflow exported from the Cisco switches and identity information from ISE
B. MACsec in Multiple-Host Mode in order to encrypt traffic at each hop of the network infrastructure
C. Identity-based ACLs preconfigured on the Cisco switches with user identities provided by ISE
D. Cisco Security Group Access Policies to control access based on SGTs assigned to different user groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco ISE administration options are available in the Default Posture Status setting? (Choose two.)
A. Unknown
B. Compliant
C. FailOpen
D. FailClose
E. Noncompliant
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 15
Which command would be used in order to maintain a single open connection between a network access device and a tacacs server?
A. tacacs-server host timeout
B. tacacs-server host single-connection
C. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt;
D. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt; single-connection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which statement about system time and NTP server configuration with Cisco ISE is true?
A. The system time and NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE.
B. The system time can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.
C. NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but the system time must be configured individually on each ISE node.
D. The system time and NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which valid external identity source can be used with Cisco ISE?
A. IPsec vpn authentication
B. smart card
C. local user name and password
D. TACACS+ token
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing.
Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which functionality does the Cisco ISE self-provisioning flow provide?
A. It provides support for native supplicants, allowing users to connect devices directly to the network.
B. It provides the My Devices portal, allowing users to add devices to the network.
C. It provides support for users to install the Cisco NAC agent on enterprise devices.
D. It provides self-registration functionality to allow guest users to access the network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
In a basic ACS deployment consisting of two servers, for which three tasks is the primary server responsible? 300-208 dumps (Choose three.)
A. configuration
B. authentication
C. sensing
D. policy requirements
E. monitoring
F. repudiation
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
During client provisioning on a Mac OS X system, the client system fails to renew its IP address. Which change can you make to the agent profile to correct the problem?
A. Enable the Agent IP Refresh feature.
B. Enable the Enable VLAN Detect Without UI feature.
C. Enable CRL checking.
D. Edit the Discovery Host parameter to use an IP address instead of an FQDN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A network administrator has just added a front desk receptionist account to the Cisco ISE Guest Service sponsor group.
Using the Cisco ISE Guest Sponsor Portal, which guest services can the receptionist provide?
A. Authenticate guest users to Cisco ISE.
B. Keep track of guest user activities.
C. Create and manage guest user accounts.
D. Configure authorization setting for guest users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which two profile attributes can be collected by a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller that supports Device Sensor? (Choose two.)
A. LLDP agent information
B. user agent
C. DHCP options
D. open ports
E. CDP agent information
F. FQDN
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. monitor mode
B. high-security mode
C. closed mode
D. low-impact mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Where is dynamic SGT classification configured?
A. Cisco ISE
B. NAD
C. supplicant
D. RADIUS proxy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
By default, how many days does Cisco ISE wait before it purges the expired guest accounts?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command on the switch ensures that the Service-Type attribute is sent with all RADIUS authentication request?
A. radius-server attribute 8 include-in-access-req
B. radius-server attribute 25 access-request include
C. radius-server attribute 6 on-for-login-auth
D. radius-server attribute 31 send nas-port-detail
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
A network administrator is seeing a posture status andquot;unknownandquot; for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as andquot;compliantandquot;. Which option is the reason for machine being reported as andquot;unknownandquot;?
A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine.
B. Posture policy does not support the OS.
C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine.
D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. 300-208 dumps What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Correct Answer: C

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Demo

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300-135 dumps

Useful Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? 300-135 dumps (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
300-135 dumps
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the networkaddressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1). 300-135 dumps
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command.
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? 300-135 dumps (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: CD

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo Free Update

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300-170 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can workers in the manufacturing industry do now as a direct result of Cisco IOx?
A. Increase their firm’s global relevance.
B. Expand their company’s marketing initiatives.
C. Receive earlier notification of an approaching peak or Reduce worker time spent in hold of operation.
D. Reduce worker time spent in manufacturing plants.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Over the next decade, how much revenue is the Cisco Internet of Things expected to offerby connecting devices worldwide?
A. $7.4 Trillion
B. $435 Million
C. $4.6 Million
D. $19.6 Billion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Three of the Cisco Connected Utilities solutions are: Connected Mobile Field, Connected AMI, and Connected Distribution Automation. Which option is the fourthsolution?
A. Connected Roadways
B. Connected Vehicle
C. Connected Substation
D. Connected Alternative Energy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
According to Cisco surveys, which option do IT Directors care most about?
A. Increasing plant and facility safety,creating a more welcoming office atmosphere, and optimizing delivery channels.
B. Reducing labor costs,improving the firm’sinternship program, and upgrading security.
C. Optimizing delivery channels, improving the client experience, and upgrading security.
D. Improving operational efficiency improving the company’s data filing system and increasing workplace diversity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two solutions are part of the Cisco internet of Things safety and security portfolio? (Choose two) 300-170 dumps
A. financial security
B. personal security
C. cyber security
D. physical security
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which attribute that is associated to the end point identity does the Cisco ACI fabric use VxLAN to remove?
A. Latency
B. Operating system
C. Scale
D. Location
E. Payload
F. Address
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 7
What is needed to forward IP multicast between bridge domains?
A. Forwarding IP multicast between bridge domains is not possible
B. External rendezvous point
C. External PIM router
D. External Layer 2 switch
E. External OSPF router
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Which three statements about a Cisco ACI Layer 3 connection to an external network are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco ACI fabric is considered a transit network.
B. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into ISIS.
C. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into MP-BGP.
D. A leaf switch can peer with an external router.
E. A leaf switch cannot peer with an external router.
F. The Cisco ACI fabric is intended to be a stub network.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 9
What do atomic counters do?
A. Count the number of leaves a flow uses
B. Count the number of ports used
C. Count the amount of time passed
D. Count the number of packets received
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Regarding the integration between the Cisco ACI fabric and VMware DVS, what is used to assign VMs to EPGs?
A. Physical NIC
B. VM networks
C. Port groups
D. IP address
E. MAC address
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which statement describes a bridge domain as it relates to the Cisco ACI? 300-170 dumps
A. Separates tenants
B. A separate routing instance
C. A container for IP subnets
D. A container for end points
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which type of links connect the spines and leafs?
A. 40GE
B. 1GE
C. 10GE
D. 100GE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Telemetry data for fabric operations
B. Policy repository
C. Distributed management plane
D. Control plane forwarding
E. Data plane forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three challenges can the Cisco ACI integration of Layer 4 to Layer 7 services help a customer solve? (Choose three.)
A. Operational challenge of waiting on specialized administrators to configure individual devices
B. Limited device features
C. Chain of network services that includes multiple vendors
D. Costly and error-prone change control
E. Politics within an IT management organization
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
What is the function of the OpFlex protocol policy element?
A. Stores statistical information
B. Learns and knows every device in the network
C. Resolves policy and configures network hardware/software
D. Captures and stores the user intent in policy
E. Limits device features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which three encapsulations types are normalized by the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure leaf? 300-170 dumps (Choose three.)
A. STT
B. VLAN
C. VxLAN
D. MPLS
E. NVGRE
F. VRF
G. OTV
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 17
Which two encoding formats are supported by the Cisco APIC REST API? (Choose two.)
A. LISP
B. XML
C. SOAP
D. JSON
E. YAML
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
Which action extends an EPG outside of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Enable a routing protocol on the border leaf.
B. Extend the bridge domain to an outside network.
C. Create a Layer 3 port.
D. Manually assign a port to a VLAN and map the VLAN to an EPG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which statement about when Cisco ACI is integrated with Microsoft Azure pack is true?
A. The application network profile is created in Windows Systems Center and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
B. The application profile is created in Windows Azure Pack Management Portal and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
C. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Windows Azure.
D. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Systems Center.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
In which two ways can Layer 4 to Layer 7 services be integrated with Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 4 to Layer 7 appliance can program the Cisco APIC.
B. The Cisco APIC controls and automatically configures Layer 4 to Layer 7 services via device packages
C. Using traditional VLAN/VRF stitching.
D. The Cisco APIC does not integrate with third-party appliances.
Correct Answer: AB

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210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The command xCommand Security FIPSMode Activate is issued to a Cisco TelePresence C-Series codec.
Management wants to reverse the effects of this command. Which two methods could be used for this purpose? (Choose two.)
A. From the touch screen, disable FIPS mode in the Administrator Settings menu.
B. From the touch screen, perform a factory reset from the Administrator Settings menu.
C. From the touch screen, disable all security settings from the Administrator Settings menu.
D. Use SSH to connect to the system and enter the xCommand Security FIPSMode Deactivate command.
E. Use Telnet to connect to the system and enter the xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Init command.
F. Use SSH to connect to the system and enter the xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Confirm: Yes command.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
Which codec represents video that is supported by Cisco TelePresence endpoints? 210-065 dumps
A. H.263
B. H.323
C. H.264
D. H.262
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
An H.323 endpoint that is registered to Cisco VCS Control is not able to make B2B calls. Calls to other internal endpoints are working fine. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The Conductor H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
B. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
C. The Production CUCM H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
D. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is in a andquot;Failedandquot; state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which system does this web user interface refer to?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Video Communications Server
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which all-in-one dual-screen solution can be used for an average meeting room without the need for external monitors?
A. MX700
B. MX300G2
C. EX90
D. SX80
E. TX9000
F. MX200G2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Users in a Cisco TelePresence room report audio and video quality issues. You have been asked to troubleshoot the issue. 210-065 dumps You log in to the endpoint GUI and check telephony settings. Which option would you recommend to resolve the issue?
A. Audio/video quality issues are generally due to low bandwidth. Contact your carrier to increase the bandwidth.
B. andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
C. andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
D. DSCP values are correct. Check the QoS configuration on the router.
E. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct. Configure the correct value in codec GUI.
F. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct. Configure the correct value in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
An administrator is attempting to register a Cisco TelePresence endpoint to a Cisco VCS. The Cisco VCS uses local authentication and a single username for all endpoints. Where is the first place that the administrator should go to resolve the issue?
A. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Devices andgt; Local Database
B. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication
C. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Outbound Connection Credentials
D. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; SIP andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication 1
E. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Allow List
F. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Deny List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 13
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration? 210-065 dumps
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting andprocessing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
A new Cisco DX650 is not registering in the Cisco Communications Manager running version 9.1.2. The latest device package and firmware was uploaded on all Cisco Communications Manager servers in the cluster. 210-065 dumps What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. A cluster-wide reboot is needed to enable the functionality.
B. You must restart the TFTP server.
C. The firmware in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
D. The software version in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
When placing a Multiway call through a Cisco TelePresence Conductor, which IP address on the Conductor should the call be routed to?
A. Rendezvous IP address
B. Ad hoc IP address
C. Scheduled conference IP address
D. Management IP address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
Correct Answer: BD

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Best Useful Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Youtube And Files Shared

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14? 300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What happens if you apply this command andquot;vlan dot1q tag nativeandquot;?
A. packet will be dropped
B. packet go to defautl vlan
C. packet go to native vlan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration? 300-115 dumps
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 ?f0/15?
A. Link Combination Control Protocol
B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link AggregationControl Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which command globally enables AAA on a device? 300-115 dumps
A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Microsoft Questions] Latest Microsoft 70-696 Dumps Exam Materials And VCE Youtube Demo Free Update

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Name: Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune
Exam Code: 70-696
Total Questions: 117 Q&As
70-696 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate security policy requirements.
What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bit locker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enter prise edition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to prepare Server 11. 70-696 dumps
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You need to identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered.
Which computers should you identify? In the table below, identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered. Make only one selection in each row.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-696 dumps
QUESTION 7
You are the network administrator for Contoso, ltd. Many users have Windows 10 Enterprise laptops, and your lT department configures all of the to use Bit locker on all fixed drives.
Many users carry sensitive corporate data on their USB drives.
You need to enable Bitlocker for these USB drives.
Which key protector option should you use?
A. a smart card
B. a startup key
C. TPM+PlN
D. TPM+Password
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You use a Windows 8.l tablet. The tablet receives Windows Update updates automatically from the lnternet. The tablet has Wi-Fi and is connected to a 3G mobile broadband Wi-Fi hot spot. You need to minimize data usage while connected to this hot spot.
What should you do?
A. Turn on AirpLANe Mode.
B. Disable File and Print Sharing for mobile broadband connections.
C. ConfiguretheinterfacemetricoflPsettingsforWi-Ficonnectionasl.
D. Edit the lnbound Rule of Windows Firewall, and then disable lnternet Control Message Protocol (lCMP) traffic.
E. Configure the broadband connection as a metered network.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
A company has l00 client computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise. A new company policy requires that all client computers have static lPv6 addresses. You need to assign static lPv6 addresses to the client computers.
Which Network Shell (netsh) command should you run?
A. add address
B. set interface
C. set global
D. set address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your company has a standard power scheme for the sales team. You are replacing a laptop for a sale associate. 70-696 dumps
You import the power scheme onto the new laptop.
You need to App1y the power scheme.
What should you do?
A. Modify the power scheme under Power and Sleep settings.
B. Run the gpupdate /F command.
C. Run the powercfg /S command.
D. Modify the advanced power settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.
C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 12
You administer Windows 10 Enter prise desktop computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task.
You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles.
What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
Correct Answer: B

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